Enhance your career with ASIS-PSP PDF Dumps - True ASIS Exam Questions
New (2026) Download free ASIS-PSP PDF for ASIS Practice Tests
Achieving the ASIS-PSP certification demonstrates to employers and clients that an individual has the knowledge and skills to effectively manage physical security risks. It is a valuable credential for security professionals who work in a variety of settings, including government agencies, corporations, educational institutions, and healthcare facilities.
NEW QUESTION # 194
Some people emerge as experts who then sell their expertise for a fee; these people are commonly referred to as:
- A. Consultants
- B. Directors
- C. Respondents
- D. Professionals
Answer: A
Explanation:
Security consultants are often retained to provide strategic input on staffing needs, policy design, and technology integration. Their advice helps organizations make informed decisions regarding the deployment of personnel, the structure of policies, and the selection of physical and electronic security systems.
References:
ASIS International, POA Manual, Chapter: Security Consulting and Contracting ASIS PSP Study Guide, Domain 2 and
NEW QUESTION # 195
When using ____________, computers must ensure that there is no traffic on the network before they are allowed to transmit information.
- A. File Transfer protocol
- B. None of the above
- C. Ethernet protocol
- D. Buses
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 196
A company has selected a project manager to upgrade security at its manufacturing plants. A risk assessment for each plant has been completed. Which of the following is the first action of the project manager?
- A. Solicit a request for information
- B. Have construction documents prepared and sent to prospective contractors for bids
- C. Develop a phased implementation plan
- D. Develop a concept design to solicit support from senior management
Answer: D
Explanation:
After a risk assessment is completed, the first step for a project manager is to create a concept design. This outlines the proposed system and supports budget justification and strategic alignment with management's objectives. Gaining senior management buy-in is essential before progressing to detailed design or procurement.
A (RFI) may follow concept approval.
C (Construction documents) are created much later.
D (Implementation planning) is dependent on approved design and funding.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Project Management Process
POA Manual - Security System Project Lifecycle
NEW QUESTION # 197
A system of discussion groups in which individual articles are distributed throughout the world is called:
- A. Widespread net
- B. Usenet
- C. Telnet
- D. Web net
Answer: B
Explanation:
Usenet is a global distributed discussion system that predates modern forums and social media. It operates through a network of servers and allows users to post and read messages (articles) in organized newsgroups.
It's one of the oldest forms of online community interaction.
Telnet (B) is a protocol for remote login.
Widespread net (C) and Web net (D) are not recognized technical terms.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Internet-Based Communication Tools
ASIS POA Manual - Networking and Digital Communication Systems
NEW QUESTION # 198
Communism has common property and radical Islam has sharing property
- A. True
- B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
Communism promotes state or collective ownership of property as a political and economic ideology. Radical Islam, while it may advocate for community-oriented economic practices (e.g., zakat, or almsgiving), does not follow the same foundational principles of property ownership as communism. The idea of " sharing property
" in radical Islam is not analogous to " common property " in communism.
References:
ASIS International, POA, Chapter: Ideological Terrorism
Academic texts on comparative political ideologies and religious extremism
NEW QUESTION # 199
Detention differs from arrest in that it permits a merchant to detain a suspected shoplifter briefly without turning the suspect over to the police.
- A. True
- B. False
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 200
A primary ingredient that represents the loss prevention specialist's opportunity to reduce theft is called:
- A. Reduced Pilfering
- B. Confusion
- C. Common denominator
- D. Low deterrence
Answer: C
Explanation:
In loss prevention, the "common denominator" refers to a recurring factor or condition that presents an opportunity for theft, such as lack of supervision, poorly designed procedures, or inadequate physical security.
Identifying and addressing these common denominators can significantly reduce incidents of pilferage or loss.
Low deterrence (A) is a result, not a proactive factor.
Confusion (B) may contribute but isn't the primary concept here.
Reduced pilfering (D) is an outcome, not an ingredient.
References:
ASIS POA Manual - Retail and Corporate Loss Prevention Strategies
PSP Study Guide - Theft Prevention Techniques
NEW QUESTION # 201
A temporary endeavor to accomplish a unique process is called a:
- A. Project
- B. Work breakdown structure
- C. Scope of work
- D. System
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive Detailed Explanation:
A project is defined as a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result. In security, examples include designing and installing a new access control system or conducting a vulnerability assessment.
A (Scope of work) outlines what a project includes.
B (Work breakdown structure) is a tool used in managing a project.
D (System) refers to a set of components working together, not the temporary process to build it.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Project Management Fundamentals
POA Manual - Defining Projects and Scope
NEW QUESTION # 202
Contingency planning is the result of which four major components?
- A. emergency response, crisis management, business recovery, business resumption
- B. basic planning, crisis management, business recovery, business resumption
- C. under investigation, crisis management, business recovery, pressure devices
- D. emergency response, crisis management, pressure devices, risk analysis
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 203
An examination of persons and/or their property for the purpose of discovering evidence of guilt in relation to some specific offense is known as:
- A. Search
- B. Examine
- C. Research
- D. Test
Answer: A
Explanation:
A search is a legal and systematic examination of a person, place, or property with the intent to discover evidence of a crime. This must often be supported by probable cause and, in many cases, a warrant.
Examine (A), Test (B), and Research (C) are generic terms that lack the legal context and specificity of
"Search."
References:
PSP Study Guide - Legal and Regulatory Requirements
ASIS POA Manual - Searches and Seizures
NEW QUESTION # 204
Which of the following are the four types of lock-down systems?
- A. locks, plates, cables and alarms
- B. cages, padlock, cables and alarms
- C. cages, plates, bolts and alarms
- D. cages, plates, cables and alarms
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 205
What involves a discreet investigation into the past and present activities of the applicant?
- A. Recording
- B. Supervisory
- C. Reporting
- D. Back-grounding
Answer: D
Explanation:
Backgrounding is the act of conducting a discreet investigation into an applicant's past and current activities.
This includes reviewing criminal records, employment history, education, and possibly financial or social behaviors to evaluate risk before hiring. It's a key aspect of the screening process for sensitive or high-trust positions.
Reporting and recording (B, D) involve documentation but not investigative vetting.
Supervisory (C) relates to management, not background checking.
References:
ASIS POA Manual - Chapter: Background Investigation
PSP Study Guide - Personnel Security Practices
NEW QUESTION # 206
What are restricted as to entrance or movement by all but authorized personnel and vehicles?
- A. Total programs
- B. Terminal operations
- C. Surveillance
- D. Controlled areas
Answer: D
Explanation:
Controlled areas are secure zones that restrict access to authorized personnel and vehicles only. These areas may include military zones, secure corporate facilities, or sensitive operational spaces where access control is enforced through badges, guards, surveillance, or barriers.
Terminal operations (A) refers to logistical or transportation hubs.
Surveillance (B) is a monitoring method, not a restricted area itself.
Total programs (C) is not a recognized security term.
References:
ASIS POA Manual - Access Control and Secure Facility Design
PSP Study Guide - Controlled Zones and Security Designations
NEW QUESTION # 207
To deal with the lack of security, both government organizations have developed guidelines for protecting electric facilities and distribution systems. On the private side, the Edison Electric Institute developed guidelines that have been passed on to the North American Electric Reliability Council (NERC), the U.S.
Department of Energy's coordinator for the U.S. electrical infrastructure. Among other things the guide lines cover:
- A. Vulnerability/risk analysis
- B. Cyber scenario
- C. Threat response
- D. Emergency detection
Answer: A,C
NEW QUESTION # 208
Ideally a business should have four sets of backup files;
- A. with two of files staying on-site and two sets of files being stored off-site
- B. with three set of files staying on-site and one set of files being stored off-site
- C. with one set of files staying on-site and three sets of files being stored off-site
- D. with four set of files staying on-site and no set of files being stored off-site
Answer: C
Explanation:
Best practices for data backup recommend redundancy and geographical separation to ensure recovery in various disaster scenarios. Ideally, four sets of backup files should be maintained:
One on-site for quick access and recovery,
Three off-site (including possibly in different physical locations or cloud storage) for protection against local disasters like fire or floods.
References:
ASIS POA Manual - Data Protection and Backup Policies
PSP Study Guide - Information Systems Continuity Planning
NEW QUESTION # 209
One basic problem with a dead latch as a security device is that the overall length of the latch is not long enough to keep the door from being forced open by prying between the:
- A. Lock cylinder and the spring
- B. Door frame and the door
- C. Lock and door
- D. Hinge and the door frame
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive Detailed Explanation:
A dead latch prevents the latch from being depressed when the door is closed. However, if the latch is too short, it may not extend far enough into the door frame to withstand forced entry attempts, such as prying between the door and frame. This can allow an intruder to manipulate or bypass the lock.
A, C, and D refer to components that don't typically relate to the dead latch's primary vulnerability.
References:
POA Manual - Door Hardware and Vulnerabilities
PSP Study Guide - Physical Barriers and Mechanical Locks
NEW QUESTION # 210
The recommendations of the Task Force on private security include which one of the following?
- A. Neither A nor B
- B. Both A & B
- C. a minimum of eight hours of formal pre-assignment training
- D. basic training of a maximum of 32 hours within 2 months of assignment, of which minimum of 16 hours can be supervised on-the-job training.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 211
Who must regularly study and analyze the channels of communication to be certain that the input they receive is accurate, relevant, timely, concise and informative?
- A. Chief Security Officer
- B. Information Security Information Officer
- C. Chief Information Officer
- D. Chief Minister
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 212
Communism has common property and radical Islam has sharing property
- A. True
- B. False
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 213
Which of the following is NOT the category of signaling systems?
- A. Central station
- B. Auxiliary
- C. Global
- D. Remote station
Answer: C
Explanation:
Fire alarm and signaling systems are typically categorized as:
Auxiliary systems
Remote station systems
Central station systems
"Global" is not a recognized category of fire signaling systems. It may refer to a scale of operations or communication networks, but it is not part of the standard classification in fire alarm systems.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Fire Alarm and Signaling Systems
ASIS POA Manual - Alarm System Components and Types
NEW QUESTION # 214
The temperature at which a solid fuel will inflame without direct flame contact is known as:
- A. Ignition temperature
- B. None of the above
- C. Excess temperature
- D. Agitate temperature
Answer: A
Explanation:
Ignition temperature (also known as autoignition temperature) is the minimum temperature at which a material will ignite spontaneously without an external flame or spark. Each material has a unique ignition temperature, which is a critical factor in fire safety and prevention.
Excess temperature (A) and Agitate temperature (C) are not standard fire science terms.
"None of the above" (D) is incorrect since ignition temperature is the valid term.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Fire Risk and Safety
ASIS POA Manual - Combustion Principles
NEW QUESTION # 215
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