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Newly Released CISA Dumps for Certified Information Systems Auditor Certified
The CISA certification is intended for professionals who are responsible for the audit, control and security of information systems. Certified Information Systems Auditor certification is also suitable for professionals who work in internal audit, risk management, and information security roles. CISA exam is designed to test the candidate's knowledge of information systems auditing, control and security.
NEW QUESTION # 195
An IS auditor is involved in the user testing phase of a development project. The developers wish to use a copy of a peak volume transaction file from the production process to show that the development can cope with the required volume. What is the auditor's PRIMARY concern?
- A. The error-handling and credibility checks may not be fully proven.
- B. Sensitive production data may be read by unauthorized persons.
- C. Users may not wish for production data to be made available for testing.
- D. All functionality of the new process may not be tested.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Information System Acquisition, Development and Implementation Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 196
An IS auditor is reviewing an organization's primary router access control list. Which of the following should result in a finding?
- A. There are conflicting permit and deny rules for the IT group.
- B. The network security group can change network address translation (NAT).
- C. There is only one rule per group with access privileges.
- D. Individual permissions are overriding group permissions.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: The process of Auditing Information System
NEW QUESTION # 197
During a disaster recovery audit, an IS auditor finds that a business impact analysis (BIA) has not been performed. The auditor should FIRST:
- A. conduct additional compliance testing.
- B. perform a business impact analysis (BIA).
- C. evaluate the impact on current disaster recovery capability.
- D. issue an intermediate report to management.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 198
When performing an audit of a client relationship management (CRM) system migration project, which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to an IS auditor?
- A. Employees pilot-testing the system are concerned that the data representation in the new system is completely different from the old system.
- B. The technical migration is planned for a Friday preceding a long weekend, and the time window is too short for completing all tasks.
- C. A single implementation is planned, immediately decommissioning the legacy system.
- D. Five weeks prior to the target date, there are still numerous defects in the printing functionality of the new system's software.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Major system migrations should include a phase of parallel operation or a phased cut-over to reduce implementation risks. Decommissioning or disposing of the old hardware would complicate any fallback strategy, should the new system not operate correctly. A weekend can be used as a time buffer so that the new system will have a better chance of being up and running after the weekend. A different data representation does not mean different data presentation at the front end. Even when this is thecase, this issue can be solved by adequate training and user support. The printing functionality is commonly one of the last functions to be tested in a new system because it is usually the last step performed in any business event. Thus, meaningful testing and the respective error fixing are only possible after all other parts of the software have been successfully tested.
NEW QUESTION # 199
In an environment that automatically reports all program changes. which of the following is the MOST efficient way to detect unauthorized changes to production programs?
- A. Reviewing the last compile dale of production programs
- B. Verifying user management approval of modifications
- C. Periodically running and reviewing test data against production programs
- D. Manually comparing code in production programs to controlled copies
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 200
When using public key encryption to secure data being transmitted across a network:
- A. both the key used to encrypt and decrypt the data are public.
- B. the key used to encrypt is public, but the key used to decrypt the data is private.
- C. both the key used to encrypt and decrypt the data are private.
- D. the key used to encrypt is private, but the key used to decrypt the data is public.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
Public key encryption, also known as asymmetric key cryptography, uses a public key to encrypt the message and a private key to decrypt it.
NEW QUESTION # 201
When auditing a disaster recovery plan for a critical business area, an IS auditor finds that it does not cover all the systems. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action for the IS auditor?
- A. Postpone the audit until the systems are added to the disaster recovery plan.
- B. Cancel the audit.
- C. Alert management and evaluate the impact of not covering all systems.
- D. Complete the audit of the systems covered by the existing disaster recovery plan.
Answer: C
Explanation:
An IS auditor should make management aware that some systems are omitted from the disaster recovery plan. An IS auditor should continue the audit and include an evaluation of the impact of not including all systems in the disaster recovery plan. Cancelling the audit, ignoring the fact that some systems are not covered or postponing the audit are inappropriate actions to take.
NEW QUESTION # 202
Which of the following is NOT a true statement about public key infrastructure (PKI)?
- A. The Registration authority role is to validate and issue digital certificates to end users
- B. The Certificate authority role is to issue digital certificates to end users
- C. The Registration authority (RA) acts as a verifier for Certificate Authority (CA)
- D. Root certificate authority's certificate is always self-signed
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
The word NOT is the keyword used in the question. We need to find out the invalid statement from the options.
A PKI (public key infrastructure) enables users of a basically unsecure public network such as the Internet to securely and privately exchange data and money through the use of a public and a private cryptographic key pair that is obtained and shared through a trusted authority. The public key infrastructure provides for a digital certificate that can identify an individual or an organization and directory services that can store and, when necessary, revoke the certificates. Although the components of a PKI are generally understood, a number of different vendor approaches and services are emerging. Meanwhile, an Internet standard for PKI is being worked on.
The public key infrastructure assumes the use of public key cryptography, which is the most common method on the Internet for authenticating a message sender or encrypting a message. Traditional cryptography has usually involved the creation and sharing of a secret key for the encryption and decryption of messages. This secret or private key system has the significant flaw that if the key is discovered or intercepted by someone else, messages can easily be decrypted. For this reason, public key cryptography and the public key infrastructure is the preferred approach on the Internet. (The private key system is sometimes known as symmetric cryptography and the public key system as asymmetric cryptography.) A public key infrastructure consists of:
A certificate authority (CA) that issues and verifies digital certificate. A certificate includes the public key or information about the public key A registration authority (RA) that acts as the verifier for the certificate authority before a digital certificate is issued to a requester A Subscriber is the end user who wish to get digital certificate from certificate authority.
The following were incorrect answers:
The Certificate authority role is to issue digital certificates to end users - This is a valid statement as the job of a certificate authority is to issue a digital certificate to end user.
The Registration authority (RA) acts as a verifier for Certificate Authority (CA) - This is a valid statement as registration authority acts as a verifier for certificate authority Root certificate authority's certificate is always self-signed - This is a valid statement as the root certificate authority's certificate is always self-signed.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
http://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/PKI
NEW QUESTION # 203
Which type of major BCP test only requires representatives from each operational area to meet to review the plan?
- A. Walk-thorough
- B. Paper
- C. Parallel
- D. Preparedness
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Of the three major types of BCP tests (paper, walk-through, and preparedness), a walk-through test requires only that representatives from each operational area meet to review the plan.
NEW QUESTION # 204
Which of the following business continuity activities prioritizes the recovery of critical functions?
- A. Risk assessment
- B. Disaster recovery plan (DRP) testing
- C. Business continuity plan (BCP) testing
- D. Business Impact analysts (BlA)
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 205
An intruder accesses an application server and makes changes to the system log. Which of the following would enable the identification of the changes?
- A. Storing the backup of the system log offsite
- B. Write-protecting the directory containing the system log
- C. Simultaneously duplicating the system log on a write-once disk
- D. Mirroring the system log on another server
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
A write-once CD cannot be overwritten. Therefore, the system log duplicated on the disk could be compared to the original log to detect differences, which could be the result of changes made by an intruder. Write-protecting the system log does not prevent deletion or modification, since the superuser can override the write protection. Backup and mirroring may overwrite earlier files and may not be current.
NEW QUESTION # 206
Which of the following should be included in an organization's IS security policy?
- A. Relevant software security features
- B. Identity of sensitive security features
- C. A list of key IT resources to be secured
- D. The basis for access authorization
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
The security policy provides the broad framework of security, as laid down and approved by senior management. It includes a definition of those authorized to grant access and the basis for granting the access. Choices A, B and C are more detailed than that which should be included in a policy.
NEW QUESTION # 207
AN IS auditor has been asked to perform an assurance review of an organization's mobile computing security. To ensure the organization is able to centrally manage mobile devices to protect against data disclosure. It is MOST important for the auditor to determine whether:
- A. a mobile security awareness training program exists.
- B. a security exist for mobile devices.
- C. lost devices can be located remotely
- D. procedures for lost devices include remote wiping of data
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 208
Which of the following is the MOST effective way for an IS auditor to evaluate the creation and deletion of administrative accounts in a virtual environment?
- A. Review accounts to determine access requirements.
- B. Review resource management for capacity performance.
- C. Review account provisioning and deprovisioning procedures.
- D. Review password management procedures.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 209
During a logical access controls review, an IS auditor observes that user accounts are shared. The
GREATEST risk resulting from this situation is that:
- A. passwords are easily guessed.
- B. user access management is time consuming.
- C. an unauthorized user may use the ID to gain access.
- D. user accountability may not be established.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
The use of a single user ID by more than one individual precludes knowing who in fact used that ID to
access a system; therefore, it is literally impossible to hold anyone accountable. All user IDs, not just
shared IDs, can be used by unauthorized individuals. Access management would not be any different with
shared IDs, and shared user IDs do not necessarily have easily guessed passwords.
NEW QUESTION # 210
Which of the following is MOST important to ensure that electronic evidence collected during a forensic investigation will be admissible in future legal proceeding?
- A. Documentation evidence handling by personnel throughout the forensic investigation
- B. Performing investigate procedures on the original hard drives rather than images of the hard drives
- C. Restricting evidence access to professionally certified forensic investigation
- D. Engaging an independent third party to perform the forensic investigation
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 211
A company has implemented an IT segregation of duties policy. In a role-based environment, which of the
following roles may be assigned to an approach developer?
- A. Database administration
- B. Emergency support
- C. System administration
- D. IT operator
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Information System Acquisition, Development and Implementation
NEW QUESTION # 212
An IS auditor is analysing a sample of assesses recorded on the system log of an application. The auditor intends to launch an intensive investigation if one exception is found. Which sampling method would be appropriate?
- A. Variable sampling
- B. Judgemental sampling
- C. Stratified sampling
- D. Discovery sampling
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 213
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