[Mar-2025] Verified CAS-004 dumps Q&As - CAS-004 dumps with Correct Answers
The Best CompTIA CASP Study Guide for the CAS-004 Exam
NEW QUESTION # 184
A company created an external application for its customers. A security researcher now reports that the application has a serious LDAP injection vulnerability that could be leveraged to bypass authentication and authorization.
Which of the following actions would BEST resolve the issue? (Choose two.)
- A. Deploy a reverse proxy
- B. Use containers.
- C. Deploy a WAF.
- D. Conduct input sanitization.
- E. Deploy an IDS.
- F. Patch the OS
- G. Deploy a SIEM.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Explanation
A WAF protects your web apps by filtering, monitoring, and blocking any malicious HTTP/S traffic traveling to the web application, and prevents any unauthorized data from leaving the app. It does this by adhering to a set of policies that help determine what traffic is malicious and what traffic is safe.
NEW QUESTION # 185
A home automation company just purchased and installed tools for its SOC to enable incident identification and response on software the company develops. The company would like to prioritize defenses against the following attack scenarios:
- Unauthorized insertions into application development environments
- Authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment
configurations
Which of the following actions will enable the data feeds needed to detect these types of attacks on development environments? (Choose two.)
- A. Model user behavior and monitor for deviations from normal.
- B. Perform static code analysis of committed code and generate summary reports.
- C. Continuously monitor code commits to repositories and generate summary logs.
- D. Monitor dependency management tools and report on susceptible third-party libraries.
- E. Implement an XML gateway and monitor for policy violations.
- F. Install an IDS on the development subnet and passively monitor for vulnerable services.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Performing static code analysis of committed code and continuously monitoring code commits to repositories can help detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments.
Static code analysis is a technique that involves analyzing code without executing it to identify potential vulnerabilities, security flaws, or other issues. By performing static code analysis of committed code and generating summary reports, the home automation company can identify any code that does not meet its standards or that may be malicious.
NEW QUESTION # 186
A company undergoing digital transformation is reviewing the resiliency of a CSP and is concerned about meeting SLA requirements in the event of a CSP incident.
Which of the following would be BEST to proceed with the transformation?
- A. An active-active solution within the same tenant
- B. A load balancer with a round-robin configuration
- C. A multicloud provider solution
- D. An on-premises solution as a backup
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A multicloud provider solution is the best option for proceeding with the digital transformation while ensuring SLA (service level agreement) requirements in the event of a CSP (cloud service provider) incident. A multicloud provider solution is a strategy that involves using multiple CSPs for different cloud services or applications, such as infrastructure, platform, or software as a service. A multicloud provider solution can provide resiliency, redundancy, and availability for cloud services or applications, as it can distribute the workload and risk across different CSPs and avoid single points of failure or vendor lock-in. An on-premises solution as a backup is not a good option for proceeding with the digital transformation, as it could involve high costs, complexity, or maintenance for maintaining both cloud and on-premises resources, as well as affect the scalability or flexibility of cloud services or applications. A load balancer with a round-robin configuration is not a good option for proceeding with the digital transformation, as it could introduce latency or performance issues for cloud services or applications, as well as not provide sufficient resiliency or redundancy in case of a CSP incident. An active-active solution within the same tenant is not a good option for proceeding with the digital transformation, as it could still be affected by a CSP incident that impacts the entire tenant or region, as well as increase the costs or complexity of managing multiple instances of cloud services or applications. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-multicloud
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
NEW QUESTION # 187
A CSP, which wants to compete in the market, has been approaching companies in an attempt to gain business. The CSP is able to provide the same uptime as other CSPs at a markedly reduced cost. Which of the following would be the MOST significant business risk to a company that signs a contract with this CSP?
- A. Vendor lock-in
- B. Resource exhaustion
- C. Control plane breach
- D. Geographic location
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Resource exhaustion is a condition that occurs when a system or service runs out of resources, such as memory, CPU, disk space, or bandwidth, and becomes unable to function properly or respond to requests.
Resource exhaustion can be caused by high demand, poor design, misconfiguration, or malicious attacks, such as denial-of-service (DoS).
Resource exhaustion would be the most significant business risk to a company that signs a contract with a cloud service provider (CSP) that is able to provide the same uptime as other CSPs at a markedly reduced cost, because this could:
Indicate that the CSP is oversubscribing or underprovisioning its resources, which could result in performance degradation, service disruption, or data loss for the company.
Affect the company's availability, reliability, and scalability requirements, which could impact its operations, reputation, and customer satisfaction.
Expose the company to potential security breaches or compliance violations, if the CSP does not implement adequate security controls or measures to prevent or mitigate resource exhaustion.
NEW QUESTION # 188
An organization's mobile device inventory recently provided notification that a zero-day vulnerability was identified in the code used to control the baseband of the devices.
The device manufacturer is expediting a patch, but the rollout will take several months.
Additionally several mobile users recently returned from an overseas trip and report their phones now contain unknown applications, slowing device performance.
Users have been unable to uninstall these applications, which persist after wiping the devices.
Which of the following MOST likely occurred and provides mitigation until the patches are released?
- A. Users opened a spear-phishing email: disable third-party application stores and validate all signed code prior to execution.
- B. Unauthentic firmware was installed, disable OTA updates and carrier roaming via MDM.
- C. Users received an improperly encoded emergency broadcast message, leading to an integrity loss condition; disable emergency broadcast messages
- D. An attacker downloaded monitoring applications; perform a full factory reset of the affected devices.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 189
A security analyst notices a number of SIEM events that show the following activity:
Which of the following response actions should the analyst take FIRST?
- A. Restart Microsoft Windows Defender.
- B. Configure the forward proxy to block 40.90.23.154.
- C. Disable local administrator privileges on the endpoints.
- D. Disable powershell.exe on all Microsoft Windows endpoints.
Answer: B
Explanation:
top the data exfiltration and sever all malicious traffic first, and then clean up the internal mess.
NEW QUESTION # 190
A company is moving most of its customer-facing production systems to the cloud-facing production systems to the cloud. IaaS is the service model being used. The Chief Executive Officer is concerned about the type of encryption available and requires the solution must have the highest level of security.
Which of the following encryption methods should the cloud security engineer select during the implementation phase?
- A. Array controller-based
- B. Proxy-based
- C. Instance-based
- D. Storage-based
Answer: D
Explanation:
We recommend that you encrypt your virtual hard disks (VHDs) to help protect your boot volume and data volumes at rest in storage, along with your encryption keys and secrets.
Azure Disk Encryption helps you encrypt your Windows and Linux IaaS virtual machine disks.
Azure Disk Encryption uses the industry-standard BitLocker feature of Windows and the DM- Crypt feature of Linux to provide volume encryption for the OS and the data disks. The solution is integrated with Azure Key Vault to help you control and manage the disk-encryption keys and secrets in your key vault subscription. The solution also ensures that all data on the virtual machine disks are encrypted at rest in Azure Storage.
NEW QUESTION # 191
A company wants to improve the security of its web applications that are running on in-house servers A risk assessment has been performed and the following capabilities are desired:
* Terminate SSL connections at a central location
* Manage both authentication and authorization for incoming and outgoing web service calls
* Advertise the web service API
* Implement DLP and anti-malware features
Which of the following technologies will be the BEST option?
- A. WAF
- B. API gateway
- C. XML gateway
- D. ESB gateway
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
An API gateway is a device or software that acts as an intermediary between clients and servers that provide web services through application programming interfaces (APIs). An API gateway can provide various functions such as:
Terminating SSL connections at a central location, reducing the overhead on the backend servers and simplifying certificate management Managing both authentication and authorization for incoming and outgoing web service calls, enforcing security policies and access control Advertising the web service API, providing documentation and discovery features for developers and consumers Implementing DLP and anti-malware features, preventing data leakage and malicious code injection A web application firewall (WAF) is a device or software that filters and blocks malicious web traffic from reaching an application. A WAF can provide some protection for web services, but it does not provide all the functions of an API gateway. An XML gateway is a device or software that validates, transforms, and routes XML messages between clients and servers that provide web services. An XML gateway can provide some functions of an API gateway, but it is limited to XML-based web services and does not support other formats such as JSON. An enterprise service bus (ESB) gateway is a device or software that integrates and orchestrates multiple web services into a single service or application. An ESB gateway can provide some functions of an API gateway, but it is more focused on business logic and workflow rather than security and performance. References: [CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2: Enterprise Security Architecture, Objective 2.3:
Implement solutions for the secure use of cloud services
NEW QUESTION # 192
Which of the following should be established when configuring a mobile device to protect user internet privacy, to ensure the connection is encrypted, and to keep user activity hidden? (Select TWO).
- A. Tunneling
- B. RDP
- C. proxy
- D. MDM
- E. MAC address randomization
- F. VDI
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
The methods that can be used to protect user internet privacy, to ensure the connection is encrypted, and to keep user activity hidden are proxy and MAC address randomization. A proxy is a server that acts as an intermediary between a user and the internet, hiding the user's IP address and location from websites and other online services. A proxy can also encrypt the connection between the user and the proxy server, preventing anyone from snooping on the user's traffic. MAC address randomization is a feature that changes the MAC address of a mobile device periodically or when connecting to different networks. A MAC address is a unique identifier of a network interface that can be used to track the device's location and activity. MAC address randomization can help protect the user's privacy by making it harder for third parties to link the device to a specific user or network. Verified Reference:
https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/proxy-server
https://www.techtarget.com/searchnetworking/definition/MAC-address-randomization
https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/MAC-address-Media-Access-Control-address
NEW QUESTION # 193
An analyst reviews the following output collected during the execution of a web application security assessment:
Which of the following attacks would be most likely to succeed, given the output?
- A. NULL and unauthenticated cipher downgrade attack
- B. Padding oracle attack
- C. Availability attack from manipulation of associated authentication data
- D. On-path forced renegotiation to insecure ciphers
Answer: B
Explanation:
Based on the output in the image, which shows weak cipher suites and vulnerabilities related to encryption padding, the padding oracle attack is the most likely. This type of attack exploits the way padding errors are handled during decryption, potentially allowing an attacker to decrypt sensitive information. The weak cipher suites and lack of forward secrecy further increase the likelihood of such an attack succeeding. CASP+ highlights padding oracle attacks as critical vulnerabilities, particularly in environments where weak encryption protocols are used.
Reference:
CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 - Enterprise Security Operations (Encryption and Padding Oracle Attacks) CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Cryptographic Attacks and Cipher Vulnerabilities
NEW QUESTION # 194
A company's SOC has received threat intelligence about an active campaign utilizing a specific vulnerability. The company would like to determine whether it is vulnerable to this active campaign.
Which of the following should the company use to make this determination?
- A. Log analysis within the SIEM tool
- B. The Cyber Kill Chain
- C. Threat hunting
- D. A system penetration test
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 195
A security engineer needs 10 implement a CASB to secure employee user web traffic. A Key requirement is mat relevant event data must be collected from existing on-premises infrastructure components and consumed by me CASB to expand traffic visibility. The solution must be nighty resilient to network outages. Which of the following architectural components would BEST meet these requirements?
- A. AWAF
- B. Reverse proxy
- C. API mode
- D. Log collection
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 196
A global organization's Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has been asked to analyze the risks involved in a plan to move the organization's current MPLS-based WAN network to use commodity Internet and SD-WAN hardware. The SD-WAN provider is currently highly regarded but Is a regional provider. Which of the following is MOST likely identified as a potential risk by the CISO?
- A. The operating costs of the MPLS network are too high for the organization.
- B. The SD-WAN provider would not be able to handle the organization's bandwidth requirements.
- C. The SD-WAN provider uses a third party for support.
- D. Internal IT staff will not be able to properly support remote offices after the migration.
Answer: C
Explanation:
SD-WAN (Software-Defined Wide Area Network) is a technology that allows organizations to use multiple, low-cost Internet connections to create a secure and dynamic WAN. SD-WAN can provide benefits such as lower costs, higher performance, and easier management compared to traditional WAN technologies, such as MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching).
However, SD-WAN also introduces some potential risks, such as:
The reliability and security of the Internet connections, which may vary depending on the location, provider, and traffic conditions.
The compatibility and interoperability of the SD-WAN hardware and software, which may come from different vendors or use different standards.
The availability and quality of the SD-WAN provider's support, which may depend on the provider's size, reputation, and outsourcing practices.
In this case, the CISO would most likely identify the risk that the SD-WAN provider uses a third party for support, because this could:
Affect the organization's ability to resolve issues or request changes in a timely and effective manner.
Expose the organization's network data and configuration to unauthorized or malicious parties.
Increase the complexity and uncertainty of the SD-WAN service level agreement (SLA) and contract terms.
NEW QUESTION # 197
Due to adverse events, a medium-sized corporation suffered a major operational disruption that caused its servers to crash and experience a major power outage. Which of the following should be created to prevent this type of issue in the future?
- A. BIA
- B. SLA
- C. RTO
- D. BCM
- E. BCP
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 198
A company just released a new video card. Due to limited supply and nigh demand, attackers are employing automated systems to purchase the device through the company's web store so they can resell it on the secondary market. The company's Intended customers are frustrated. A security engineer suggests implementing a CAPTCHA system on the web store to help reduce the number of video cards purchased through automated systems.
Which of the following now describes the level of risk?
- A. Mitigated
- B. Inherent
- C. Low
- D. Residual
- E. Transferred
Answer: D
Explanation:
CAPTCHA does not completely mitigate the risk of Bots but rather reduces the risk and therefore Residual risk remains after the CAPTCHA implementation.
NEW QUESTION # 199
A company plans to build an entirely remote workforce that utilizes a cloud-based infrastructure. The Chief Information Security Officer asks the security engineer to design connectivity to meet the following requirements:
Only users with corporate-owned devices can directly access servers hosted by the cloud provider.
The company can control what SaaS applications each individual user can access.
User browser activity can be monitored.
Which of the following solutions would BEST meet these requirements?
- A. API gateway, UEM, and forward proxy
- B. IAM gateway, MDM, and reverse proxy
- C. SSL tunnel, DLP, and host-based firewall
- D. VPN, CASB, and secure web gateway
Answer: D
Explanation:
A VPN (virtual private network) can provide secure connectivity for remote users to access servers hosted by the cloud provider. A CASB (cloud access security broker) can enforce policies and controls for accessing SaaS applications. A secure web gateway can monitor and filter user browser activity to prevent malicious or unauthorized traffic. Verified Reference: https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-vpn
NEW QUESTION # 200
A cloud security engineer is setting up a cloud-hosted WAF. The engineer needs to implement a solution to protect the multiple websites the organization hosts. The organization websites are:
* www.mycompany.org
* www.mycompany.com
* campus.mycompany.com
* wiki. mycompany.org
The solution must save costs and be able to protect all websites. Users should be able to notify the cloud security engineer of any on-path attacks. Which of the following is the BEST solution?
- A. Purchase one wildcard certificate.
- B. Purchase one certificate for each website.
- C. Implement self-signed certificates.
- D. Purchase one SAN certificate.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Purchasing one wildcard certificate is the best solution to protect multiple websites hosted by an organization in a cloud-hosted WAF. A wildcard certificate is a type of SSL/TLS certificate that can secure a domain name and any number of its subdomains with a single certificate. For example, a wildcard certificate for *.mycompany.com can secure www.mycompany.com, campus.mycompany.com, and any other subdomain under mycompany.com. A wildcard certificate can save costs and simplify management compared to purchasing individual certificates for each website.
NEW QUESTION # 201
A security consultant needs to set up wireless security for a small office that does not have Active Directory. Despite the lack of central account management, the office manager wants to ensure a high level of defense to prevent brute-force attacks against wireless authentication.
Which of the following technologies would BEST meet this need?
- A. WPA3 SAE
- B. WEP 128 bit
- C. WPA2 PSK
- D. Faraday cage
Answer: A
Explanation:
WPA3 SAE prevents brute-force attacks.
NEW QUESTION # 202
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CAS-004 certification guide Q&A from Training Expert VCE4Plus: https://www.vce4plus.com/CompTIA/CAS-004-valid-vce-dumps.html
CAS-004 Certification Overview Latest CAS-004 PDF Dumps: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1cOqF662GE4hTkmFwYmU6Ej0mwRgkeEG9