[Sep 08, 2023] CCSK Exam Dumps PDF Guaranteed Success with Accurate & Updated Questions
Pass CCSK Exam - Real Test Engine PDF with 112 Questions
What is the duration, language, and format of the Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSK) Exam
- Format: Multiple Choice Questions
- Time Allowed: 90 minutes
- Passing score: 80%
- Language of Exam: English, Spanish
- Number of questions: 60
Cloud Security Alliance CCSK certification is a valuable asset for IT professionals looking to advance their careers in cloud security. Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (v4.0) Exam certification is recognized globally as a standard for cloud security expertise, and it demonstrates a deep understanding of cloud security principles and practices. With the rapidly evolving cloud computing industry and the latest security threats and practices, the CCSK v4.0 certification is an essential tool for IT professionals looking to stay ahead of the curve and remain competitive in the job market.
The CCSK certification exam is suitable for a wide range of professionals, including IT managers, security professionals, auditors, and compliance officers. Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (v4.0) Exam certification is also valuable for cloud service providers, cloud architects, and consultants who are involved in cloud security. Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (v4.0) Exam certification is recognized globally and is a valuable addition to any professional's resume.
NEW QUESTION # 49
Which of the following is true when we talk about compliance inheritance?
- A. Everything the customer configures and builds on top of the certified services is out of sec
- B. Cloud Service Provider's infrastructure is out of scope in the customer's compliance audit
- C. There is no need for compliance audit by customer since the Cloud Service Provider is already compliant.
- D. Cloud Service Provider's infrastructure should be included in the customer's compliance audit
Answer: B
Explanation:
With compliance inheritance, the cloud provider's infrastructure is out of scope fora customer's compliance audit, but everything the customer configures and builds on top of the certified services is still within scope.
Reference: CSA Security GuidelinesV.4 (reproduced here for the educational purpose)
NEW QUESTION # 50
Which of the following is NOT part of Risk management process?
- A. Framing
- B. Dealing
- C. Responding
- D. Assessing
Answer: B
Explanation:
The risk-management process has four components
1. Framing risk
2. Assessing risk
3. Responding to risk
4. Monitoring risk
NEW QUESTION # 51
What is it called when you lose control of the amount of content on your image store?
- A. Sprawl
- B. Media Contention
- C. Media Sanitization
- D. Data Loss
Answer: A
Explanation:
Sprawl occurs when you lose control of the amount of content on your image store.
Unnecessary images may be created and run. Each additional image running is another potential point of compromise for an attacker.
NEW QUESTION # 52
Which data security control is the LEAST likely to be assigned to an IaaS provider?
- A. Encryption solutions
- B. Application logic
- C. Asset management and tracking
- D. Access controls
- E. Physical destruction
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 53
Cloud architectures necessitate certain roles which are extremely high-risk. Examples of such roles include CP system administrators and auditors and managed security service providers dealing with intrusion detection reports and incident response. They are known as high-risk because their malicious activities can lead to abuse of high privilege roles and can impact confidentiality, integrity and availability of data.
- A. True
- B. False
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 54
Your SLA with your cloud provider ensures continuity for all services.
- A. True
- B. False
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 55
One of the main reasons and advantage of having external audit is:
- A. Internal staff is less qualified than external auditors.
- B. Its cheaper
- C. Its independent
- D. Better tools used by external provider
Answer: C
Explanation:
All other answers are distractors. One of the primary reasons of doing external auditing is the independence of auditors.
NEW QUESTION # 56
What is the most significant security difference between traditional infrastructure and cloud computing?
- A. Network access points
- B. Management plane
- C. Secondary authentication factors
- D. Mobile security configuration options
- E. Intrusion detection options
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 57
How does virtualized storage help avoid data loss if a drive fails?
- A. Data loss is unavoidable with drive failures
- B. Full back ups weekly
- C. Incremental backups daily
- D. Multiple copies in different locations
- E. Drives are backed up, swapped, and archived constantly
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 58
Which term is used to describe the use of tools to selectively degrade portions of the cloud to continuously test business continuity?
- A. Expected Engineering
- B. Resiliency Planning
- C. Planned Outages
- D. Chaos Engineering
- E. Organized Downtime
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 59
What would you call logic/procedures running on a shared database platform as?
- A. Platform-based Workload
- B. Virtual Machine
- C. Serverless Computing
- D. Container
Answer: A
Explanation:
Platform-based workloads: This is a more complex category that covers workloads running on a shared platform that aren't virtual machines or containers, such as logic/procedures running on a shared database platform. Imagine a stored procedure running inside a multitenant database, or a machine- learning job running on a machine-learning Platform as a Service. Isolation and security are totally the responsibility of the platform provider, although the provider may expose certain security options and controls.
Reference: CSA Security GuidelinesV.4(reproduced here for the educational purpose)
NEW QUESTION # 60
Which of the following statements are NOT requirements of governance and enterprise risk management in a cloud environment?
- A. Respect the interdependency of the risks inherent in the cloud supply chain and communicate the corporate risk posture and readiness to consumers and dependent parties.
- B. Negotiate long-term contracts with companies who use well-vetted software application to avoid the transient nature of the cloud environment.
- C. Provide transparency to stakeholders and shareholders demonstrating fiscal solvency and organizational transparency.
- D. Both B and C.
- E. Inspect and account for risks inherited from other members of the cloud supply chain and take active measures to mitigate and contain risks through operational resiliency.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 61
When creating business strategies for cloud migration. which is the most important aspect?
- A. Valuating current staff for their capabilities
- B. Choosing the right auditor
- C. Due Diligence when inspecting technologies and choosing cloud provider
- D. Hiring a cloud broker
Answer: C
Explanation:
Due Diligence is most important aspect when considering adoption to the cloud
NEW QUESTION # 62
Which of the following is a key component that allows programmatic management of the cloud?
- A. Firewall
- B. APIs
- C. API Gateway
- D. Control Plane
Answer: B
Explanation:
Application Programming Interfaces allow for programmatic management of the cloud. They are the glue that holds the cloud's components together and enables their orchestration. Since not everyone wants to write programs to manage their cloud, web consoles provide visual interfaces. ln many cases web consoles merely use the same APIs you can access directly.
Reference: CSA Security Guidelines V.4 (reproduced here for the educational purpose)
NEW QUESTION # 63
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Object Storage?
- A. Has additional Metadata
- B. Cannot be accessed through web interface
- C. Stored in cloud
- D. Accessed through web interface
Answer: B
Explanation:
Object storage: Similar to a file share accessed via APIs or a web interface. Examples include Amazon S3 and Rackspace cloud files.
NEW QUESTION # 64
The risk left in any system after all countermeasures and strategies have been applied is called:
- A. Leftover risk
- B. Mitigated Risk
- C. Residual Risk
- D. Annualised Risk
Answer: C
Explanation:
Thats the definition of residual risk
NEW QUESTION # 65
Who is responsible for infrastructure Security in Software as a Service(SaaS) service model?
- A. Cloud Customer
- B. Cloud Carrier
- C. It's a shared responsibility between Cloud Service Provider and Cloud Customer
- D. Cloud Service Provider
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cloud service Provider is responsible for infrastructure in Software as a service(SaaS) service Model
NEW QUESTION # 66
Which of the following is NOT a component of Software Defined Perimeter as defined by Cloud Security Alliance Working group on SDP?
- A. SDP Host
- B. SDP Controller
- C. SDP Client
- D. SDP Gateway
Answer: A
Explanation:
The CSA Software Defined Perimeter Working Group has developed a model and specification that combines device and user authentication to dynamically provision network access to resources and enhance security. SDP includes three components:
An SDP client on the connecting asset (e.g. a laptop).
* The SDP controller for authenticating and authorizing SDP clients and configuring the connections to SDP gateways.
* The SDP gateway for terminating SDP client network traffic and enforcing policies in communication with the SDP controller. Reference: CSA Security GuidelinesV.4(reproduced here for the educational purpose)
NEW QUESTION # 67
Which of the following is a responsibility of Cloud customer?
- A. Meta Structure
- B. Secure Virtualization Infrastructure
- C. Isolation
- D. Image Asset Management
Answer: D
Explanation:
Image asset management. Cloud compute deployments are based on master images-be it a virtual machine, container, or other code-that are then run in the cloud. This is often highly automated and results in a larger number of images to base assets on, compared to traditional computing master images. Managing these-including which meet security requirements, where they can be deployed, and who has access to them-is an important security responsibility.
Reference: CSA Security GuidelinesV.4(reproduced here for the educational purpose)
NEW QUESTION # 68
"Capabilities are available over the network and accessed through standard mechanisms that promote use by heterogeneous thin or thick client platforms" Which of the following characterstics defines this
- A. Broad network access
- B. Resource pooling
- C. Rapid elasticity
- D. 0n-demand self-service
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 69
An agreed-upon description of the attributes of a product. at a point in time that serves as a basis for defining change is called:
- A. Standardization
- B. Trusted Module
- C. Secured Server
- D. Baseline
Answer: D
Explanation:
A baseline is an agreed-upon description of the attributes of a product. at a point in time that serves as a basis for defining change.
NEW QUESTION # 70
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